15 Questions concerning gastrointestinal disorders including small bowel obstruction/resection, NG tube, Hx of previous appendicitis, GI hemmorhage, colostomy and acid reflux. Chrons disease is he primary disfunction with all its co morbidities.
1. During preparation for bowel surgery, a male client receives an antibiotic to reduce intestinal bacteria. Antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of which vitamin and may lead to hypoprothrombinemia?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
1. Answer D. Intestinal bacteria synthesize such nutritional substances as vitamin K, thiamine, riboflavin, vitamin B12, folic acid, biotin, and nicotinic acid. Therefore, antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of these substances, including vitamin K. Intestinal bacteria don’t synthesize vitamins A, D, or E.
2. A male client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position the client for this test initially?
a. Lying on the right side with legs straight
b. Lying on the left side with knees bent
c. Prone with the torso elevated
d. Bent over with hands touching the floor
2. Answer B. For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client on the left side with knees bent. Placing the client on the right side with legs straight, prone with the torso elevated, or bent over with hands touching the floor wouldn’t allow proper visualization of the large intestine.
3. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform for a female client receiving enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube?
a. Change the tube feeding solutions and tubing at least every 24 hours.
b. Maintain the head of the bed at a 15-degree elevation continuously.
c. Check the gastrostomy tube for position every 2 days.
d. Maintain the client on bed rest during the feedings.
3. Answer A. Tube feeding solutions and tubing should be changed every 24 hours, or more frequently if the feeding requires it. Doing so prevents contamination and bacterial growth. The head of the bed should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees continuously to prevent aspiration. Checking for gastrostomy tube placement is performed before initiating the feedings and every 4 hours during continuous feedings. Clients may ambulate during feedings.
4. A male client is recovering from a small-bowel resection. To relieve pain, the physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M. every 4 hours. How soon after administration should meperidine’s onset of action occur?
a. 5 to 10 minutes
b. 15 to 30 minutes
c. 30 to 60 minutes
d. 2 to 4 hours
4. Answer B. Meperidine’s onset of action is 15 to 30 minutes. It peaks between 30 and 60 minutes and has a duration of action of 2 to 4 hours.
5. While a female client is being prepared for discharge, the nasogastric (NG) feeding tube becomes clogged. To remedy this problem and teach the client’s family how to deal with it at home, what should the nurse do?
a. Irrigate the tube with cola.
b. Advance the tube into the intestine.
c. Apply intermittent suction to the tube.
d. Withdraw the obstruction with a 30-ml syringe.
5. Answer A. The nurse should irrigate the tube with cola because its effervescence and acidity are suited to the purpose, it’s inexpensive, and it’s readily available in most homes. Advancing the NG tube is inappropriate because the tube is designed to stay in the stomach and isn’t long enough to reach the intestines. Applying intermittent suction or using a syringe for aspiration is unlikely to dislodge the material clogging the tube but may create excess pressure. Intermittent suction may even collapse the tube.
6. Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI bleeding?
a. Endoscopy
b. Upper GI series
c. Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT)
d. Arteriography
6. Answer A. Endoscopy permits direct evaluation of the upper GI tract and can detect 90% of bleeding lesions. An upper GI series, or barium study, usually isn’t the diagnostic method of choice, especially in a client with acute active bleeding who’s vomiting and unstable. An upper GI series is also less accurate than endoscopy. Although an upper GI series might confirm the presence of a lesion, it wouldn’t necessarily reveal whether the lesion is bleeding. Hb levels and HCT, which indicate loss of blood volume, aren’t always reliable indicators of GI bleeding because a decrease in these values may not be seen for several hours. Arteriography is an invasive study associated with life-threatening complications and wouldn’t be used for an initial evaluation.
7. When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?
a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.
b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix.
c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage.
7. Answer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.
8. A female client with hepatitis C develops liver failure and GI hemorrhage. The blood products that would most likely bring about hemostasis in the client are:
a. whole blood and albumin.
b. platelets and packed red blood cells.
c. fresh frozen plasma and whole blood.
d. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.
8. Answer D. The liver is vital in the synthesis of clotting factors, so when it’s diseased or dysfunctional, as in hepatitis C, bleeding occurs. Treatment consists of administering blood products that aid clotting. These include fresh frozen plasma containing fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate, which have most of the clotting factors. Although administering whole blood, albumin, and packed cells will contribute to hemostasis, those products aren’t specifically used to treat hemostasis. Platelets are helpful, but the best answer is cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.
9. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?
a. “Lie down after meals to promote digestion.”
b. “Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.”
c. “Take antacids with meals.”
d. “Limit fluid intake with meals.”
9. Answer B. To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to avoid lying down after meals, which can aggravate reflux, and to take antacids after eating. The client need not limit fluid intake with meals as long as the fluids aren’t gastric irritants.
10. The nurse caring for a client with small-bowel obstruction would plan to implement which nursing intervention first?
a. Administering pain medication
b. Obtaining a blood sample for laboratory studies
c. Preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube
d. Administering I.V. fluids
10. Answer D. I.V. infusions containing normal saline solution and potassium should be given first to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. For the client’s comfort and to assist in bowel decompression, the nurse should prepare to insert an NG tube next. A blood sample is then obtained for laboratory studies to aid in the diagnosis of bowel obstruction and guide treatment. Blood studies usually include a complete blood count, serum electrolyte levels, and blood urea nitrogen level. Pain medication often is withheld until obstruction is diagnosed because analgesics can decrease intestinal motility.
11. A female client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge?
a. The client doesn’t exhibit rectal tenesmus.
b. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
c. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation.
d. The client has normal gastric structures.
11. Answer B. Dysphagia may be the reason why a client with esophagitis or achalasia seeks treatment. Dysphagia isn’t associated with rectal tenesmus, duodenal inflammation, or abnormal gastric structures.
12. A male client undergoes total gastrectomy. Several hours after surgery, the nurse notes that the client’s nasogastric (NG) tube has stopped draining. How should the nurse respond?
a. Notify the physician
b. Reposition the tube
c. Irrigate the tube
d. Increase the suction level
12. Answer A. An NG tube that fails to drain during the postoperative period should be reported to the physician immediately. It may be clogged, which could increase pressure on the suture site because fluid isn’t draining adequately. Repositioning or irrigating an NG tube in a client who has undergone gastric surgery can disrupt the anastomosis. Increasing the level of suction may cause trauma to GI mucosa or the suture line.
13. A male client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:
a. yellow sclerae.
b. light amber urine.
c. circumoral pallor.
d. black, tarry stools.
13. Answer A. Yellow sclerae may be the first sign of jaundice, which occurs when the common bile duct is obstructed. Urine normally is light amber. Circumoral pallor and black, tarry stools don’t occur in common bile duct obstruction; they are signs of hypoxia and GI bleeding, respectively.
14. Nurse Hannah is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:
a. a sedentary lifestyle and smoking.
b. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking.
c. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure.
d. alcohol abuse and smoking.
14. Answer D. Risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress. A sedentary lifestyle and a history of hemorrhoids aren’t risk factors for peptic ulcers. Chronic renal failure, not acute renal failure, is associated with duodenal ulcers.
15. While palpating a female client’s right upper quadrant (RUQ), the nurse would expect to find which of the following structures?
a. Sigmoid colon
b. Appendix
c. Spleen
d. Liver
15. Answer D. The RUQ contains the liver, gallbladder, duodenum, head of the pancreas, hepatic flexure of the colon, portions of the ascending and transverse colon, and a portion of the right kidney. The sigmoid colon is located in the left lower quadrant; the appendix, in the right lower quadrant; and the spleen, in the left upper quadrant.
Five signs of increased intracranial pressure from earliest to late would be:
1. Headache
2. Irritability
3. Deteriorating level of consciuosness
4. Slowness to react
5. Alteration in breathing pattern (Cheyne Stokes)
Three positions contraindicated for a patient with IICP would be:
1. Tredelinbergers
2. Supine
3. Lateral side-lying (left or right)
Resources for NCLEX questions-NCLEXReviewers.com http://nclexreviewers.com/nclex-review/gastrointestinal-diseases/gastrointestinal-diseases-nclex-review-questions-part-2.html
1. During preparation for bowel surgery, a male client receives an antibiotic to reduce intestinal bacteria. Antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of which vitamin and may lead to hypoprothrombinemia?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
1. Answer D. Intestinal bacteria synthesize such nutritional substances as vitamin K, thiamine, riboflavin, vitamin B12, folic acid, biotin, and nicotinic acid. Therefore, antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of these substances, including vitamin K. Intestinal bacteria don’t synthesize vitamins A, D, or E.
2. A male client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position the client for this test initially?
a. Lying on the right side with legs straight
b. Lying on the left side with knees bent
c. Prone with the torso elevated
d. Bent over with hands touching the floor
2. Answer B. For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client on the left side with knees bent. Placing the client on the right side with legs straight, prone with the torso elevated, or bent over with hands touching the floor wouldn’t allow proper visualization of the large intestine.
3. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform for a female client receiving enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube?
a. Change the tube feeding solutions and tubing at least every 24 hours.
b. Maintain the head of the bed at a 15-degree elevation continuously.
c. Check the gastrostomy tube for position every 2 days.
d. Maintain the client on bed rest during the feedings.
3. Answer A. Tube feeding solutions and tubing should be changed every 24 hours, or more frequently if the feeding requires it. Doing so prevents contamination and bacterial growth. The head of the bed should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees continuously to prevent aspiration. Checking for gastrostomy tube placement is performed before initiating the feedings and every 4 hours during continuous feedings. Clients may ambulate during feedings.
4. A male client is recovering from a small-bowel resection. To relieve pain, the physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M. every 4 hours. How soon after administration should meperidine’s onset of action occur?
a. 5 to 10 minutes
b. 15 to 30 minutes
c. 30 to 60 minutes
d. 2 to 4 hours
4. Answer B. Meperidine’s onset of action is 15 to 30 minutes. It peaks between 30 and 60 minutes and has a duration of action of 2 to 4 hours.
5. While a female client is being prepared for discharge, the nasogastric (NG) feeding tube becomes clogged. To remedy this problem and teach the client’s family how to deal with it at home, what should the nurse do?
a. Irrigate the tube with cola.
b. Advance the tube into the intestine.
c. Apply intermittent suction to the tube.
d. Withdraw the obstruction with a 30-ml syringe.
5. Answer A. The nurse should irrigate the tube with cola because its effervescence and acidity are suited to the purpose, it’s inexpensive, and it’s readily available in most homes. Advancing the NG tube is inappropriate because the tube is designed to stay in the stomach and isn’t long enough to reach the intestines. Applying intermittent suction or using a syringe for aspiration is unlikely to dislodge the material clogging the tube but may create excess pressure. Intermittent suction may even collapse the tube.
6. Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI bleeding?
a. Endoscopy
b. Upper GI series
c. Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT)
d. Arteriography
6. Answer A. Endoscopy permits direct evaluation of the upper GI tract and can detect 90% of bleeding lesions. An upper GI series, or barium study, usually isn’t the diagnostic method of choice, especially in a client with acute active bleeding who’s vomiting and unstable. An upper GI series is also less accurate than endoscopy. Although an upper GI series might confirm the presence of a lesion, it wouldn’t necessarily reveal whether the lesion is bleeding. Hb levels and HCT, which indicate loss of blood volume, aren’t always reliable indicators of GI bleeding because a decrease in these values may not be seen for several hours. Arteriography is an invasive study associated with life-threatening complications and wouldn’t be used for an initial evaluation.
7. When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?
a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.
b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix.
c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage.
7. Answer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.
8. A female client with hepatitis C develops liver failure and GI hemorrhage. The blood products that would most likely bring about hemostasis in the client are:
a. whole blood and albumin.
b. platelets and packed red blood cells.
c. fresh frozen plasma and whole blood.
d. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.
8. Answer D. The liver is vital in the synthesis of clotting factors, so when it’s diseased or dysfunctional, as in hepatitis C, bleeding occurs. Treatment consists of administering blood products that aid clotting. These include fresh frozen plasma containing fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate, which have most of the clotting factors. Although administering whole blood, albumin, and packed cells will contribute to hemostasis, those products aren’t specifically used to treat hemostasis. Platelets are helpful, but the best answer is cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.
9. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?
a. “Lie down after meals to promote digestion.”
b. “Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.”
c. “Take antacids with meals.”
d. “Limit fluid intake with meals.”
9. Answer B. To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to avoid lying down after meals, which can aggravate reflux, and to take antacids after eating. The client need not limit fluid intake with meals as long as the fluids aren’t gastric irritants.
10. The nurse caring for a client with small-bowel obstruction would plan to implement which nursing intervention first?
a. Administering pain medication
b. Obtaining a blood sample for laboratory studies
c. Preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube
d. Administering I.V. fluids
10. Answer D. I.V. infusions containing normal saline solution and potassium should be given first to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. For the client’s comfort and to assist in bowel decompression, the nurse should prepare to insert an NG tube next. A blood sample is then obtained for laboratory studies to aid in the diagnosis of bowel obstruction and guide treatment. Blood studies usually include a complete blood count, serum electrolyte levels, and blood urea nitrogen level. Pain medication often is withheld until obstruction is diagnosed because analgesics can decrease intestinal motility.
11. A female client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge?
a. The client doesn’t exhibit rectal tenesmus.
b. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
c. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation.
d. The client has normal gastric structures.
11. Answer B. Dysphagia may be the reason why a client with esophagitis or achalasia seeks treatment. Dysphagia isn’t associated with rectal tenesmus, duodenal inflammation, or abnormal gastric structures.
12. A male client undergoes total gastrectomy. Several hours after surgery, the nurse notes that the client’s nasogastric (NG) tube has stopped draining. How should the nurse respond?
a. Notify the physician
b. Reposition the tube
c. Irrigate the tube
d. Increase the suction level
12. Answer A. An NG tube that fails to drain during the postoperative period should be reported to the physician immediately. It may be clogged, which could increase pressure on the suture site because fluid isn’t draining adequately. Repositioning or irrigating an NG tube in a client who has undergone gastric surgery can disrupt the anastomosis. Increasing the level of suction may cause trauma to GI mucosa or the suture line.
13. A male client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:
a. yellow sclerae.
b. light amber urine.
c. circumoral pallor.
d. black, tarry stools.
13. Answer A. Yellow sclerae may be the first sign of jaundice, which occurs when the common bile duct is obstructed. Urine normally is light amber. Circumoral pallor and black, tarry stools don’t occur in common bile duct obstruction; they are signs of hypoxia and GI bleeding, respectively.
14. Nurse Hannah is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:
a. a sedentary lifestyle and smoking.
b. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking.
c. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure.
d. alcohol abuse and smoking.
14. Answer D. Risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress. A sedentary lifestyle and a history of hemorrhoids aren’t risk factors for peptic ulcers. Chronic renal failure, not acute renal failure, is associated with duodenal ulcers.
15. While palpating a female client’s right upper quadrant (RUQ), the nurse would expect to find which of the following structures?
a. Sigmoid colon
b. Appendix
c. Spleen
d. Liver
15. Answer D. The RUQ contains the liver, gallbladder, duodenum, head of the pancreas, hepatic flexure of the colon, portions of the ascending and transverse colon, and a portion of the right kidney. The sigmoid colon is located in the left lower quadrant; the appendix, in the right lower quadrant; and the spleen, in the left upper quadrant.
Five signs of increased intracranial pressure from earliest to late would be:
1. Headache
2. Irritability
3. Deteriorating level of consciuosness
4. Slowness to react
5. Alteration in breathing pattern (Cheyne Stokes)
Three positions contraindicated for a patient with IICP would be:
1. Tredelinbergers
2. Supine
3. Lateral side-lying (left or right)
Resources for NCLEX questions-NCLEXReviewers.com http://nclexreviewers.com/nclex-review/gastrointestinal-diseases/gastrointestinal-diseases-nclex-review-questions-part-2.html